Prove that if the dot product of two non-zero vectors, \(\vec{u}\) and \(\vec{v}\), is equal to zero, then \(\vec{u}\) and \(\vec{v}\) must be perpendicular.
Solution
We are required to prove \( \vec{u} \perp \vec{v}\) given that \( \vec{u}\cdot \vec{v}=0\).
Proof
\[\begin{align*} \vec{u}\cdot \vec{v} &= 0 \\ \therefore \lvert \vec{u}\rvert \lvert \vec{v}\rvert \cos(\theta) &=0\end{align*}\]
Since \( \lvert \vec{u}\rvert \neq 0 \) and \( \lvert \vec{v} \rvert \neq 0 \), it must be that \( \cos(\theta) = 0\).
Solving this equation, we get \(\theta = \pm 90^\circ\).
Therefore, \(\vec{u}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{v}\).
Is the converse true? That is, if non-zero vectors, \(\vec{u}\) and \(\vec{v}\), are perpendicular, then does \(\vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=0\)?
This example proves an important property of the dot product of two vectors:
If \(\vec{u}\cdot \vec{v} =0\) where \(\vec{u},\vec{v}\neq \vec{0}\), then \(\vec{u}\perp\vec{v}\). Conversely, if \(\vec{u}\perp \vec{v}\), then \(\vec{u}\cdot \vec{v} =0\).
Two vectors are orthogonal if they are perpendicular, but includes the case where either (possibly both) vectors are \(\vec{0}\).